Hypothesize there is negative correlation between a country's economic well-being and its predilection to commit genocide. The hypothesized mechanism is they are looking for a scapegoat to blame for their economic troubles.
Is this true? I suspect there is lots of data to test this hypothesis. Are there exceptions (low economic well-being but no genocide, or high economic well-being with genocide)? How can one explain the exceptions (if there are any)?
To what extent can the economic troubles of Germany after World War I be attributed to actions taken by the WWI victor countries seeking spoils of war a.k.a. reparations? Assuming true the causality from economic downturn to genocide, this becomes an intensely political question: who is to blame for the Holocaust?
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